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    Mental Health Kentucky University Proctored Exam 2

    A 21-year-old female-to-male transitioning client wishes to begin treatment with hormone therapy. Which of the following would be appropriate to suppress female hormones?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A reason: Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist that initially stimulates and then suppresses the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), leading to decreased estrogen production from the ovaries. It is commonly used in transgender men to suppress endogenous female hormone production prior to or alongside testosterone therapy. This suppression helps reduce menstruation and estrogen-driven secondary sex characteristics, facilitating masculinization. Choice B reason: Spironolactone is primarily used in male-to-female (MTF) transitions to block androgen receptors and reduce testosterone effects. It is not used to suppress estrogen in female-to-male (FTM) transitions and would not be appropriate for this client. Choice C reason: Estrogen is a feminizing hormone and would counteract the goals of masculinization in a female-to-male transition. Administering estrogen would increase female secondary sex characteristics, which is the opposite of the desired effect. Choice D reason: Testosterone is the primary hormone used to induce masculinization in female-to-male transitions. However, it does not suppress endogenous estrogen production directly. While it promotes male secondary sex characteristics, it is often combined with agents like GnRH agonists (e.g., Leuprolide) to effectively suppress female hormone activity.

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