A 24-year-old at 30 weeks with contractions and 2 cm dilation is prescribed the tocolytic indomethacin. What is the primary reason for administering this medication?

Rationale: A. Reducing maternal hypertension is not an action of indomethacin; antihypertensives are used for preeclampsia management. B. Inducing stronger contractions is the opposite of indomethacin’s effect; it is a tocolytic, not a labor-inducing agent. C. Directly stimulating fetal surfactant production is the role of antenatal corticosteroids, not indomethacin. D. Delaying preterm labor is the primary purpose of indomethacin, a prostaglandin synthase inhibitor. This delay allows time for administration of antenatal corticosteroids, which enhance fetal lung maturity and improve neonatal outcomes.