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    Mental Health Northern Kentucky University Proctored Exam 7

    A 24-year-old man with a tibial fracture is suspected of having compartment syndrome. Of the following, which action by the nurse practitioner would be the most INAPPROPRIATE?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A reason: Requesting an immediate surgical consult is appropriate because compartment syndrome is a surgical emergency. Prompt evaluation by an orthopedic surgeon can prevent permanent muscle and nerve damage. Choice B reason: Leaving restrictive casts, dressings, or bandages intact is inappropriate. These can increase intracompartmental pressure, worsening ischemia and potentially leading to irreversible tissue damage. Rapid removal or loosening is essential. Choice C reason: Providing supplemental oxygen is a supportive intervention that may help tissue oxygenation while awaiting definitive treatment, though it does not address the primary ischemic cause. Choice D reason: Keeping the extremity at the level of the heart is appropriate because elevation above the heart can reduce arterial perfusion and worsen ischemia, while lowering below heart level may increase edema. Maintaining a neutral position optimizes blood flow.

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