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    Mental Health Kentucky University Proctored Exam 1

    A 31-year-old male client has come to the PMHNP for a medication follow-up. He tells the prescriber he is feeling "very good" on escitalopram (Lexapro). He feels so good, in fact, that he has decided to add the supplement tryptophan to his medication regimen to "boost" its effect. What is the most appropriate response by the PMHNP?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A reason: While encouraging autonomy is important, this response overlooks the potential danger of combining serotonergic agents. It may inadvertently reinforce unsafe behavior. Choice B reason: Although tryptophan has been studied for its role in mood regulation, combining it with SSRIs like escitalopram increases the risk of serotonin syndrome—a potentially life-threatening condition. This response fails to address the safety concern. Choice C reason: This response acknowledges the client’s progress while appropriately warning about the risk of serotonin syndrome. It maintains therapeutic rapport and provides necessary education about drug interactions. Choice D reason: This response is overly critical and may damage the therapeutic relationship. It does not validate the client’s intent or provide constructive guidance.

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