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    Mental Health Kentucky University Proctored Exam 3

    A 33-year-old man is seeking medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid use disorder (OUD). He says he wants a medication that he will not become "addicted" to. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A reason: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It is not used as a standalone maintenance treatment for opioid use disorder and has no role in long-term MAT. It is short-acting and not suitable for daily use. Choice B reason: Naltrexone is a long-acting opioid antagonist that blocks the effects of opioids without producing euphoria or physical dependence. It is non-addictive and does not cause withdrawal symptoms when discontinued. It is ideal for individuals who want a non-addictive MAT option and are fully detoxified from opioids. Choice C reason: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist that reduces cravings and withdrawal symptoms. While it has a lower risk of addiction than full agonists, it can still cause physical dependence and withdrawal upon discontinuation. Choice D reason: Buprenorphine/Naloxone is a combination used to reduce misuse potential. However, it still contains buprenorphine, which can lead to physical dependence. It is not the best choice for someone explicitly seeking a non-addictive option.

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