A 40-year-old patient arrives at the psychiatric emergency department exhibiting involuntary movements, including repetitive, purposeless movements of the face, arms, and legs. These movements are consistent with extra pyramidal symptoms. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Explanation & Rationale
Choice A reason: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that decreases central nervous system excitability and is not associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Instead, it can reduce agitation and anxiety. It does not cause dopamine blockade and therefore would not produce the involuntary motor movements described. Choice B reason: Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic with strong dopamine D2 receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway. Dopamine inhibition in this region leads directly to extrapyramidal symptoms, including dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. The repetitive, purposeless motor movements described are characteristic of these adverse effects, making this the most likely causative medication. Choice C reason: Methylphenidate is a stimulant used primarily for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. While it increases dopamine levels, it does not produce dopamine blockade. Therefore, it does not cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Adverse effects are usually related to stimulation such as insomnia, decreased appetite, or increased heart rate. Choice D reason: Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Although SSRIs can produce tremors or mild restlessness, they do not cause the dopamine suppression necessary to trigger extrapyramidal symptoms. The involuntary purposeless movements described in the question do not match SSRI side effects.