A 40-year-old woman calls the PMHNP with concerns that she is exhibiting both negative and positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following descriptions about gender differences in schizophrenia is true?

Choice A reason: The overall incidence of schizophrenia is slightly higher in men than in women. Men tend to have an earlier onset and more severe course, while women often have a later onset and better social functioning. Choice B reason: Women are more likely to experience a second peak of schizophrenia onset after age 40, often associated with hormonal changes such as menopause. This late-onset pattern is less common in men, making this statement accurate. Choice C reason: Women may experience fewer negative symptoms and better social outcomes, but psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions can be equally present. The course of psychosis is not necessarily milder in women. Choice D reason: While women may respond better to treatment and have better social functioning, the frequency of psychotic symptoms does not consistently decrease more than in men. Symptom trajectory varies individually.