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    Mental Health Northern Kentucky University Proctored Exam 6

    A 41-year-old male client has just been diagnosed with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (NDI) and asks the nurse practitioner for more information about the disorder. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A reason: NDI is not caused by a lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH); that would describe central diabetes insipidus. In NDI, the kidneys are unresponsive to ADH despite normal or elevated hormone levels. Choice B reason: NDI can be linked to genetic mutations, particularly X-linked forms, which predominantly affect males. This makes this statement correct. Choice C reason: NDI is characterized by normal or even elevated ADH levels because the kidney fails to respond appropriately, leading to excessive urination. Choice D reason: A hallmark of NDI is the production of large volumes of dilute urine, which is a direct result of renal insensitivity to ADH.

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