NursingPlex
    Sign In
    Mental Health Kentucky University Proctored Exam 2

    A 41-year-old woman is diagnosed with asthma. Which of the following most closely explains the pathophysiology of airway constriction associated with asthma?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A reason: While mucosal thickening and epithelial damage are part of asthma’s pathology, this description is incomplete and does not fully explain the mechanism of airway constriction. It omits the critical roles of smooth muscle contraction and mucus plugging, which are central to airflow limitation. Choice B reason: This describes the pathophysiology of emphysema, a form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), not asthma. Emphysema involves destruction of alveolar walls and irreversible airflow obstruction, which is not characteristic of asthma. Choice C reason: Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways characterized by variable and reversible airflow obstruction. The key mechanisms include infiltration of inflammatory cells (e.g., eosinophils, mast cells), mucus hypersecretion with plug formation, and bronchial smooth muscle contraction. These processes lead to narrowing of the airways and symptoms such as wheezing, dyspnea, and coughing. Choice D reason: This describes the pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), not asthma. ARDS involves alveolar-capillary membrane damage and decreased lung compliance due to fluid leakage, which is unrelated to the bronchial hyperresponsiveness seen in asthma.

    🔒 Submit your answer to reveal