NursingPlex
    Sign In
    Ati lpn med surg proctored exam

    A 65-year-old male patient presents with worsening shortness of breath, fatigue, and swollen legs. He has a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease. Upon assessment, he demonstrates symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize in the initial management of this patient?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A rationale Diuretics are the priority because they directly address the volume overload associated with left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart cannot pump efficiently, causing fluid to back up into the lungs and venous system. Loop diuretics like furosemide work by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to rapid diuresis. This decreases preload and relieves pulmonary congestion, which is critical for stabilizing the patient's respiratory status and comfort. Choice B rationale Placing a patient with heart failure in a supine position is contraindicated as it increases venous return to an already failing heart. This exacerbates pulmonary congestion and worsens shortness of breath by increasing the pressure in the pulmonary vasculature. Instead, the nurse should place the patient in high-Fowler's position to decrease venous return and maximize thoracic expansion. Proper positioning is a non-pharmacological intervention that significantly impacts gas exchange and oxygenation efficiency during acute exacerbations. Choice C rationale While telemetry monitoring is important for detecting arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation, which can complicate heart failure, it is not the primary intervention for acute fluid overload. Heart failure often leads to myocardial stretching, which can trigger ectopic beats or lethal rhythms. Monitoring provides essential data for long-term management and safety, but the immediate physiological threat in this scenario is the respiratory compromise caused by pulmonary edema, which requires rapid pharmacological diuresis to manage. Choice D rationale While managing hypertension is a long-term goal for treating the underlying cause of heart failure, it is not the first priority during an acute symptomatic presentation. Reducing afterload can help cardiac output, but the immediate distress is caused by fluid. Antihypertensives should be managed carefully to ensure they do not cause a sudden drop in cardiac output or renal perfusion. The immediate focus remains on clearing the lungs of fluid to ensure the patient can oxygenate effectively.

    🔒 Submit your answer to reveal