A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder is exhibiting severe manic behaviors. A physician prescribes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) and olanzapine (Zyprexa), which is a second-generation antipsychotic. The client's spouse questions the Zyprexa order. Which is the appropriate nursing reply?

Choice A reason: While olanzapine may have sedative properties, its primary indication in this context is not to promote sleep but to manage acute manic symptoms. This response minimizes the therapeutic rationale and may mislead the family about the medication’s purpose. Choice B reason: This is correct. Lithium has a delayed onset of action, often taking 1–3 weeks to reach therapeutic effect. Olanzapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, acts more rapidly to reduce acute manic symptoms such as agitation, grandiosity, and impulsivity. It provides symptom control while waiting for lithium to stabilize mood. Choice C reason: This is incorrect. There is no cure for bipolar disorder. Treatment focuses on symptom management and relapse prevention. Suggesting a cure is misleading and may create unrealistic expectations. Choice D reason: This is incorrect. While second-generation antipsychotics have a lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms compared to first-generation agents, their use is not primarily to prevent these side effects. The rationale for olanzapine in this case is to manage acute mania.