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    ATI PHARMACOLOGY NSG 1540 Proctored EXAM 3

    A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected fungal infection. Which cue would indicate the need for a topical antifungal treatment?

    Explanation & Rationale

    A. Linear burrows on the skin are characteristic of scabies, which is caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei. This is a parasitic infection, not a fungal infection. The treatment of scabies requires topical scabicides such as permethrin cream, not antifungal medications. Recognizing this pattern ensures that the client receives the correct therapy. B. A red, raised, circular rash with central clearing is classic for tinea infections, also known as ringworm, which are caused by dermatophyte fungi. These infections are typically localized, and topical antifungal agents like clotrimazole, miconazole, or terbinafine are the first-line treatment. Identifying these characteristic lesions allows for targeted therapy and faster resolution of the infection. C. Small vesicles arranged in a cluster suggest a viral infection, such as herpes simplex or varicella-zoster virus (shingles). These are not fungal infections, and topical antifungals will not be effective. Antiviral treatment is the appropriate intervention. Misidentifying these lesions could delay proper therapy. D. Yellow, pus-filled blisters are indicative of bacterial skin infections, such as impetigo caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. These infections require topical or systemic antibiotics, not antifungals. Differentiating bacterial from fungal lesions ensures that the client receives the correct treatment and prevents unnecessary medication exposure.

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