A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postpartum following a vaginal birth.The client has saturated a perineal pad within 10 minutes.Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Choice A rationalePreparing to administer a prescribed oxytocic preparation is a possible intervention for postpartum hemorrhage, but the immediate first step should be to assess the uterus, the most common source of early postpartum bleeding.Choice B rationaleAssessing the client's blood pressure is important in evaluating the extent of blood loss, but it is not the initial action to take. Addressing the likely cause of the bleeding should precede further assessment of vital signs.Choice C rationaleAssessing the bladder for distention is important as a full bladder can displace the uterus and interfere with its contraction, potentially contributing to bleeding. However, directly addressing the uterine tone is the immediate first step.Choice D rationaleMassaging the client's fundus is the priority action because uterine atony, a soft and non-contracted uterus, is the most frequent cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Stimulating the uterus to contract by massage helps to compress the blood vessels at the placental site and decrease bleeding. .