A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

A. "There is an increased risk of introducing infection." – While infections can occur, the primary concern with internal examinations in placenta previa is hemorrhage rather than infection. B. "There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes." – While membrane rupture is a risk with any vaginal examination, it is not the primary concern in placenta previa. C. "This could result in profound bleeding." – With placenta previa, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix. Digital or speculum exams can disrupt the placenta, causing significant hemorrhage, which is why they are contraindicated. D. "This could initiate preterm labor." – While stimulation of the cervix could lead to contractions, the primary risk with an internal exam in placenta previa is significant bleeding, not preterm labor.