A nurse is caring for a patient with schizophrenia who has been prescribed aripiprazole. Which statement best reflects the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Rationale: A. Complete dopamine blockade is more characteristic of first-generation antipsychotics and can lead to significant side effects; aripiprazole does not act this way. B. Aripiprazole does not directly enhance dopamine release; instead, it modulates dopamine activity. C. Aripiprazole is a partial dopamine agonist, meaning it balances dopamine activity—reducing excessive dopamine in some areas of the brain (to treat psychosis) while enhancing it where it's low (to improve mood and motivation). D. Aripiprazole acts on both dopamine and serotonin receptors, not serotonin alone, and is primarily used for psychotic disorders rather than depression exclusively.