A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who is gravida 1 and para 0. The client was admitted to the hospital at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
Explanation & Rationale
A. 1+ pitting sacral edema: Mild edema is common in both normal pregnancy and preeclampsia. While not diagnostic on its own, sacral or dependent edema can occur in preeclamptic clients due to increased capillary permeability and fluid retention. B. 3+ protein in the urine: Significant proteinuria, such as 3+, is a key diagnostic criterion of preeclampsia and results from renal impairment caused by endothelial dysfunction. This finding is strongly associated with moderate to severe preeclampsia. C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg: A systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg or a diastolic ≥90 mm Hg after 20 weeks gestation is one of the main diagnostic markers for preeclampsia. This blood pressure reading supports the diagnosis and is entirely consistent with the condition. D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1: Preeclampsia typically causes hyperreflexia (+3 or +4) due to increased CNS irritability. A reflex score of +1 indicates decreased reflex activity, which is not characteristic of untreated preeclampsia and may suggest another issue, such as magnesium sulfate toxicity.