A nurse is educating a client starting on risperidone. Which of the following statements best explains the unique pharmacological action of second-generation antipsychotics compared to first-generation antipsychotics?

Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key. Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms. Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism. Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.