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    Ati lpn med surg integumentary test proctored exam

    A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV 2). Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

    Explanation & Rationale

    A. This statement is incorrect because HSV-2 can be transmitted even when lesions are not present due to asymptomatic viral shedding. While condom use is strongly recommended to reduce transmission risk, limiting condom use only during active outbreaks does not provide adequate protection. B. This statement is incorrect because genital herpes is a viral infection, not a bacterial one. Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Treatment for HSV-2 involves antiviral medications such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir to reduce symptom severity, duration, and frequency of outbreaks. C. This statement is incorrect because a hard, painless sore is characteristic of syphilis (chancre), not herpes. HSV-2 typically presents with painful vesicles or ulcers, often preceded by tingling, burning, or itching sensations. D. This statement is correct. HSV-2 can be transmitted during periods of asymptomatic viral shedding, even when no lesions or symptoms are present. Understanding this is essential for preventing transmission and highlights the importance of consistent condom use and antiviral therapy.

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