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    Mental Health Northern Kentucky University Proctored Exam 4

    For a 39-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis who is treatment-naive with mild disease, which of the following would be considered an appropriate first-line therapy?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A reason: Intra-articular glucocorticoids can be used for localized joint flares but are not considered first-line systemic therapy for psoriatic arthritis. They are reserved for symptom control in specific joints when inflammation is severe. Choice B reason: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the recommended first-line therapy for mild psoriatic arthritis. They help control pain, stiffness, and inflammation by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes that mediate prostaglandin synthesis. For patients with mild symptoms and no significant joint damage, NSAIDs are effective initial management before escalating to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). Choice C reason: Opioids are not indicated for inflammatory arthropathies. They mask pain but do not reduce inflammation or prevent disease progression, and they carry risks of tolerance and dependence. Choice D reason: Pregabalin is used for neuropathic pain and fibromyalgia, not for psoriatic arthritis. It does not target inflammation or joint damage.

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