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    Med Surg 2 Proctored ExamQuestion 15
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    Med Surg 2 Proctored Exam

    The nurse has just received change-of-shift report about the following clients. Which client should be assessed first?

    Explanation & Rationale

    A. A 36-year-old client with pelvic inflammatory disease due for antibiotic: While timely administration of antibiotics is important to manage infection and prevent complications, this client is currently stable and not exhibiting acute, life-threatening symptoms, so immediate assessment is not the highest priority. B. A 22-year-old gymnast with secondary amenorrhea who says that her menstrual cycle was 2 months ago: Secondary amenorrhea in a young athlete may require evaluation for hormonal imbalances or stress-related amenorrhea, but it is not acutely life-threatening and can be assessed after higher-priority clients. C. A client with a possible ectopic pregnancy who is complaining of severe shoulder pain: Shoulder pain in a possible ectopic pregnancy can indicate diaphragmatic irritation from intra-abdominal bleeding, suggesting a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This is a surgical emergency that can rapidly lead to hypovolemic shock and requires immediate assessment and intervention. D. A client who is complaining of 4/10 pain after an abdominal hysterectomy: Postoperative pain is expected and moderate in intensity. While it should be addressed, it is not immediately life-threatening compared with a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

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