Mental Health Kentucky University Proctored Exam 1
The PMHNP suspects that a 44-year-old man on an inpatient unit has developed neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which laboratory values would help confirm the diagnosis?
Explanation & Rationale
Choice A reason: Leukopenia and decreased creatine phosphokinase are not consistent with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). NMS typically presents with elevated muscle enzymes due to muscle breakdown. Choice B reason: Leukocytosis and elevated creatine phosphokinase (CPK) are hallmark laboratory findings in NMS. The elevated CPK reflects rhabdomyolysis from severe muscle rigidity, and leukocytosis indicates systemic inflammation. Choice C reason: Thrombocytosis may occur in various inflammatory conditions but is not a defining feature of NMS. The absence of elevated CPK makes this option less diagnostic. Choice D reason: Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia are more indicative of bone marrow suppression or hematologic disorders, not NMS.
🔒 Submit your answer to reveal
Your Progress
Correct0
Incorrect0
Skipped0
Accuracy0%