Two days after being admitted with alcohol withdrawal, a client has constant liquid stools and abdominal cramping. The emesis and stool are hemoccult positive. The client is confused and refusing to take oral medication. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Choice A rationale: Administering an antianxiolytic medication may be appropriate, but addressing the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance is the priority. Choice B rationale: Inserting a fecal management tube is not the first action to take in response to hemoccult positive liquid stools; addressing fluid balance is more urgent. Choice C rationale: Inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter is the priority to address the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance and provide necessary hydration and medications. Choice D rationale: Crushing pills and placing them in applesauce may be considered, but the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance needs prompt attention first.