Two days after being admitted with alcohol withdrawal, a client has constant liquid stools and abdominal cramping. The emesis and stool are hemoccult positive. The client is confused and refusing to take oral medication. Which action should the nurse implement first?

A) Administering an antianxiolytic medication may be necessary but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalance takes precedence. B) Inserting a fecal management tube may be needed for fecal incontinence management but does not address the immediate issue of fluid and electrolyte imbalance. C) Inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter allows for fluid and electrolyte replacement and medication administration, addressing the client's immediate needs. D) Crushing pills and placing them in applesauce may be a method for administering oral medication, but the client is refusing oral intake, and IV access is needed for fluid and electrolyte replacement.