When assessing a recently delivered, multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?
Explanation & Rationale
Rationale: A. She is a gravida 6, para 5: A high parity (multiple previous births) stretches the uterus significantly over time, increasing the risk of uterine atony—a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage due to the uterus failing to contract effectively. B. She received butorphanol 2 mg IV during labor: Butorphanol is a narcotic analgesic and does not directly contribute to excessive postpartum bleeding or uterine atony in typical doses. C. She is over 35 years of age: Advanced maternal age can increase some obstetric risks, but it is not as directly associated with postpartum hemorrhage as high parity. D. The second stage of labor lasted 10 minutes: A short second stage may lead to perineal trauma, but it is less likely to cause excessive vaginal bleeding compared to uterine atony from high parity.