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    Mental Health Kentucky University Proctored Exam 2

    Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the pharmacologic treatment of Crohn's disease?

    Explanation & Rationale

    Choice A reason: Metronidazole has shown efficacy in treating perianal Crohn’s disease and mild-to-moderate disease activity, particularly when infection or abscess is suspected. It is often used as adjunct therapy. Choice B reason: Sulfasalazine is more effective in ulcerative colitis than in Crohn’s disease. Its benefit in Crohn’s is limited and not considered first-line, especially for small bowel involvement. This makes the statement incorrect. Choice C reason: Thiopurines such as azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine are immunomodulators used to maintain remission and reduce steroid dependence. They are effective in long-term management of Crohn’s disease. Choice D reason: NSAIDs can exacerbate Crohn’s disease by increasing intestinal permeability and promoting inflammation. Their use is generally avoided in patients with inflammatory bowel disease.

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