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    Exam Review

    1. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who delivered their third infant 2 days ago. Which of the following manifestations could indicate postpartum depression?
      A)Delusions.
      B)Euphoria.
      C)Flat affect.
      D)Insomnia.
      E)Fatigue.
    2. A patient is admitted to labor and delivery for management of severe preeclampsia. An IV infusion of magnesium sulfate is ordered. What is the primary goal for magnesium sulfate therapy?
      A)Decrease proteinuria.
      B)Prevent maternal seizures.
      C)Reduce deep tendon reflexes.
    3. A nurse is caring for a patient who has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?
      A)Reinforce the need to take antipsychotics as prescribed.
      B)Monitor the infant for indications of failure to thrive.
      C)Ask the patient if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant.
      D)Review the client’s medical record for a history of bipolar disorder.
    4. A nurse is instructing a female client about how to check basal temperature in order to determine if the client is ovulating. The nurse should instruct the client to check her temperature at which of the following times?
      A)On days 13 to 17 of her menstrual cycle.
      B)Before going to bed every night.
      C)Every morning before arising.
      D)One hour following intercourse.
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    Exam Review

    1. What physical assessment finding is expected in a newborn after a precipitous delivery?
      A)Bruising on the head.
      B)Low birth weight.
      C)Hypotonia.
      D)Hyperthermia.
    2. A client has been diagnosed with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs or symptoms is characteristic of this diagnosis?
      A)Severe nausea and vomiting.
      B)Bradycardia.
      C)Referred shoulder pain.
      D)Heavy vaginal bleeding.
    3. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that a laboring client is experiencing Amniotic Fluid Embolism?
      A)Sudden onset of respiratory distress.
      B)Maternal bradycardia.
      C)Category 1 fetal heart tracing.
      D)Acute, continuous abdominal pain.
    4. A nurse is caring for a client who is grieving the loss of their newborn. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
      A)Explain that the newborn is no longer in pain to facilitate grieving.
      B)Share the nurse’s own experiences and feelings to facilitate grieving.
      C)Avoid calling the newborn by their name to facilitate grieving.
      D)Allow the client to hold or be with their newborn to facilitate grief.
    Page 2 of 11

    Exam Review

    1. A nurse is assisting with providing care for a client who is in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to help with lung maturity?
      A)Azithromycin.
      B)Indomethacin.
      C)Magnesium sulfate.
      D)Betamethasone.
    2. A nurse is teaching a client who is postpartum and has a new prescription for an injection of Rh (D) immunoglobulin. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
      A)It destroys Rh antibodies in newborns who are Rh positive.
      B)It damages Rh antibodies in mothers who are Rh negative.
      C)It stops the formation of Rh antibodies in newborns who are Rh positive.
      D)It prevents the formation of Rh antibodies in mothers who are Rh negative.
    3. Which of the following is most indicative of postpartum subinvolution?
      A)Uterine atony.
      B)Prolonged lochia discharge.
      C)Severe cramping.
      D)High fever.
    4. A nurse is teaching a client at 24 weeks of gestation about special considerations of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching was effective? (Select all that apply)(SATA)
      A)I am at increased risk of preterm labor.
      B)I am at risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus.
      C)I will need to undergo intensive fetal monitoring.
      D)I will need to have a cesarean section.
      E)I am at risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
    Page 3 of 11

    Exam Review

    1. A nurse is planning a presentation about the impact of hyperemesis gravidarum on client health. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
      A)Persistent nausea and vomiting are expected during the first trimester.
      B)Measures can be taken to prevent this disease from occurring.
      C)Psychological disorders may occur due to the impact on the client’s quality of life.
      D)Hyperemesis gravidarum requires hospitalization for rehydration.
    2. What is the characteristic appearance of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) on ultrasound?
      A)Thickening of the uterine lining.
      B)Enlargement of the fallopian tubes.
      C)Grape-like clusters in the placenta.
      D)Multiple cysts in the ovaries.
    3. During a delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia, the baby’s head retracts back against the perineum after it emerges, a phenomenon known as ‘turtling’. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action for the healthcare provider to take?
      A)Wait for the next contraction to try and deliver the shoulders naturally.
      B)Perform the McRoberts maneuver to reposition the mother’s legs and widen the pelvis.
      C)Apply fundal pressure to help push the baby out.
      D)Use vacuum extraction to assist the delivery of the shoulders.
    4. Which of the following is a risk factor for cervical insufficiency?
      A)Multiple gestation.
      B)Advanced maternal age.
      C)History of preterm labor.
      D)Cervical surgery.
    Page 4 of 11

    Exam Review

    1. What are the contraindications for a patient wanting to have a TOLAC?
      A)History of uterine rupture.
      B)Previous cesarean section for breech presentation.
      C)Previous low transverse cesarean section birth.
      D)Low-risk pregnancy.
    2. A nurse is reviewing charts for clients who have a diagnosis of placental abruption. Which of the following clients needs an emergent cesarean section?
      A)Client who is at 32 weeks of gestation, has a blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 71/min with a category I fetal heart tracing.
      B)Client who is at 39 weeks of gestation, has a blood pressure of 122/88 mm Hg, and a pulse of 88/min with a fetal demise.
      C)Client who is at 38 weeks of gestation, has a fetal demise and is hemorrhaging, and has a cervix dilated at 4 cm.
      D)Client who is at 37 weeks of gestation, has a blood pressure of 116/68 mm Hg, a pulse of 72/min, and has a category I fetal heart tracing with cervical dilation at 3 cm.
    3. A patient tells the nurse that she knows all about sexually transmitted infections and proceeds to make the following statements. Which one is the only correct statement that the client makes?
      A)Biologically, both women and men have an equal risk for acquiring sexually transmitted infections from a sexual partner.
      B)It is possible to have a sexually transmitted infection without having any signs or symptoms of infection.
      C)All sexually transmitted infections are curable.
      D)Using condoms completely eliminates the risk of acquiring sexually transmitted infections.
    4. When teaching a prenatal class, the nurse realizes that some of the material must be reviewed when one of the dads says that many sexually transmitted infections are transmissible during delivery. The mother might need a cesarean section at the time of delivery to avoid transmission through breastfeeding. Which of the following statements is true?
      A)All sexually transmitted infections are transmitted during delivery.
      B)Some sexually transmitted infections can be transmitted during delivery.
      C)A cesarean section is always required to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted infections.
      D)Breastfeeding cannot transmit any sexually transmitted infections.
    Page 5 of 11

    Exam Review

    1. What is the recommended frequency for breastfeeding a newborn in a 24-hour period?
      A)6-8 times.
      B)8-12 times.
      C)10-14 times.
      D)12-16 times.
    2. What is the nutritional importance in pregnancy for a client with anemia?
      A)Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
      B)Decrease intake of protein-rich foods.
      C)Increase intake of calcium-rich foods.
      D)Increase intake of vitamin C-rich foods.
    3. A nurse is planning care for a 4-hour-old newborn born to a client who has a prenatal history of substance use disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
      A)Perform a Ballard exam and obtain a score to identify exposure to substances.
      B)Provide consoling therapies such as offering non-nutritive sucking with a pacifier.
      C)Administer naloxone.
      D)Encourage the parents and visitors to provide frequent bonding.
    4. A newborn is assessed and found to be jaundiced at 24 hours old. What is the significance of this finding?
      A)It is a common occurrence in newborns.
      B)It indicates an underlying disease or condition.
      C)It is a result of immature liver function.
      D)It is a normal physiological response in newborns.
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